So then. Can someone explain Jaguar’s thought processes with this? Inboard rear disk brakes… Working on my XJ6’s and upped power with a supercharged LS3 and a twin turbo RB26 in the other. For obvious reasons had to upgrade the entire braking system. Though the original layout makes it a b@$7@r& to replace and service. Basically have to drop the rear subframe out, rather than pull off a wheel.
This may sound stupid but putting the front caliber at the front would push the front of the car down in braking, so wouldn’t outing the caliber at tr back of the front wheel push the back of the car up? I know that this will in reality still push the front of the car down due to physics but wouldn’t there be a small difference being as the brake caliber is slightly further back? I dunno if anyone will understand what I mean..
The Nissan LMP1 GT-R got front calipers down low.
I’ve never wondered why they’re there, because, why it should be on other place? It had to be somewhere :D
The Alfa 75, because having brakes on the hubs it for normal cars.
This guy tought me so much about cars, extremely appreciated!
Not rotors - brake discs 😩
I have always considered another factor that may or may not be a significant. I am fairly sure I have the signs correct of the forces applied, I have never bothered finding values though. What I am talking about is force applied to the frame by the caliper, as it is in contact (experiencing friction) with the rotor.
I am going to just refer to the rear wheel and explain the two situations I am talking about. In both cases the caliper will be mounted to the hub that holds the wheel bearing and my assumption is that this attachment is centrally located within the wheel. So with EE’s diagram, its mounted in the middle of the wheel, and then extends out to the edge of the rotor in one of the quadrants. I believe this is where I would be wrong if I am, so feel free to argue the legitimacy of the assumption. So now for the two cases, Forward quadrant vs rear quadrant. If the caliper is mounted on the rear of the wheel, when the brakes are applied friction is created between the rotor and the pads/caliper. The force on the rotor would counter its clockwise movement therefor being in an downward, in a Free Body Diagram (FBD), direction due to its location. So therefore the force on the “car” through the calipers would be upwards. Opposite situation is having the Caliper on the forward side of the wheel. When the brake is applied friction creates two forces again. The force on the rotor would counter its movement therefor being in an upward direction in a FBD. This upward force again is countered by the force being applied Downward by the “car” and the Caliper.
I am starting to doubt myself as I have explained this because you can’t move the suspension from a force acting on the wheel, Its not really two sets of free bodys. I am still not convinced though because it could still apply that force down and compress the rubber of the tire, not the suspension.
Am I crazy or is this a factor at all?
And yes I know that the much much larger force would be momentum moving all the weight to the front of the car and taking it off the rear wheels. Since that IS the case though I would argue that a factor why the calipers in front are in the back of the rotor is because one does NOT want so much force down in order to keep pressure in the back.
Am I crazy or does this make sense? Do I need to clarify anything?
Comments
So then. Can someone explain Jaguar’s thought processes with this? Inboard rear disk brakes…
Working on my XJ6’s and upped power with a supercharged LS3 and a twin turbo RB26 in the other.
For obvious reasons had to upgrade the entire braking system. Though the original layout makes it a b@$7@r& to replace and service. Basically have to drop the rear subframe out, rather than pull off a wheel.
This may sound stupid but putting the front caliber at the front would push the front of the car down in braking, so wouldn’t outing the caliber at tr back of the front wheel push the back of the car up? I know that this will in reality still push the front of the car down due to physics but wouldn’t there be a small difference being as the brake caliber is slightly further back? I dunno if anyone will understand what I mean..
The Nissan LMP1 GT-R got front calipers down low.
I’ve never wondered why they’re there, because, why it should be on other place? It had to be somewhere :D
The Alfa 75, because having brakes on the hubs it for normal cars.
This guy tought me so much about cars, extremely appreciated!
Not rotors - brake discs 😩
I have always considered another factor that may or may not be a significant. I am fairly sure I have the signs correct of the forces applied, I have never bothered finding values though.
What I am talking about is force applied to the frame by the caliper, as it is in contact (experiencing friction) with the rotor.
I am going to just refer to the rear wheel and explain the two situations I am talking about. In both cases the caliper will be mounted to the hub that holds the wheel bearing and my assumption is that this attachment is centrally located within the wheel. So with EE’s diagram, its mounted in the middle of the wheel, and then extends out to the edge of the rotor in one of the quadrants.
I believe this is where I would be wrong if I am, so feel free to argue the legitimacy of the assumption.
So now for the two cases, Forward quadrant vs rear quadrant.
If the caliper is mounted on the rear of the wheel, when the brakes are applied friction is created between the rotor and the pads/caliper. The force on the rotor would counter its clockwise movement therefor being in an downward, in a Free Body Diagram (FBD), direction due to its location. So therefore the force on the “car” through the calipers would be upwards.
Opposite situation is having the Caliper on the forward side of the wheel. When the brake is applied friction creates two forces again. The force on the rotor would counter its movement therefor being in an upward direction in a FBD. This upward force again is countered by the force being applied Downward by the “car” and the Caliper.
I am starting to doubt myself as I have explained this because you can’t move the suspension from a force acting on the wheel, Its not really two sets of free bodys. I am still not convinced though because it could still apply that force down and compress the rubber of the tire, not the suspension.
Am I crazy or is this a factor at all?
And yes I know that the much much larger force would be momentum moving all the weight to the front of the car and taking it off the rear wheels. Since that IS the case though I would argue that a factor why the calipers in front are in the back of the rotor is because one does NOT want so much force down in order to keep pressure in the back.
Am I crazy or does this make sense? Do I need to clarify anything?